Exam Name: JANMCE (Jharkhand Auxiliary Nurse Midwife Competitive Examination)
Conducting Body: Jharkhand Staff Selection Commission (JSSC)
Total Questions: 50
Total Marks: 50
Time Duration: 60 minutes
Negative Marking: No
Exam Mode: Offline (OMR) / Online (CBT)
The exam covers the following subjects:
- Community Health Nursing
- Primary Health Care
- Child Health Nursing
- Midwifery
- Health Centre Management
- Human Body & Hygiene
- Mental Health
- Nutrition
- Communicable Diseases
- Environmental Sanitation
- Infection & Immunization
A) 1970
B) 1975
C) 1978 ✓
D) 1980
Explanation: The Alma Ata Declaration on Primary Health Care was made in 1978 in Kazakhstan.
A) Extrinsic incubation period
B) Intrinsic incubation period
C) Serial interval ✓
D) Window Period
Explanation: Serial interval is the time between onset of symptoms in primary and secondary cases.
A) 20
B) 30 ✓
C) 40
D) 50
Explanation: Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram screens for 30 health conditions including defects at birth, deficiencies, diseases and developmental delays.
A) 1946 ✓
B) 1948
C) 1950
D) 1952
Explanation: UNICEF was established on December 11, 1946.
A) Doctor
B) Health worker ✓
C) Pharmacist
D) Administrator
Explanation: Health workers are appointed to provide health services at village level under PHC system.
A) 2nd October 2013
B) 2nd October 2014 ✓
C) 15th August 2014
D) 26th January 2015
Explanation: Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched on 2nd October 2014 on Gandhi's 150th birthday.
A) Typhoid ✓
B) Malaria
C) Diarrhea
D) Yellow fever
Explanation: Typhoid is caused by Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi bacteria.
A) Typhoid
B) Cholera
C) Hepatitis A
D) Itching ✓
Explanation: Itching is not a water-borne disease; it's caused by allergies, toxins, or skin conditions.
A) 1950
B) 1952 ✓
C) 1975
D) 1978
Explanation: India started setting up PHCs in 1952.
A) 2003
B) 2005 ✓
C) 2007
D) 2009
Explanation: National Rural Health Mission was launched by the Indian government in 2005.
Q11. A technique in which air is provided to those who cannot breathe normally but heart continues to beat is:
A) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation ✓
B) Bandaging
C) Dressing
D) Splinting
Explanation: CPR provides artificial ventilation and chest compressions to maintain circulation and breathing.
A) Post maturity ✓
B) Prematurity
C) Normal delivery
D) Multiple pregnancy
Explanation: Saffron colored meconium staining is characteristic of post-term pregnancies and fetal distress.
A) Normal labor
B) Fetal distress ✓
C) Maternal distress
D) Quick delivery
Explanation: Meconium in amniotic fluid indicates fetal hypoxia and distress.
A) 40 weeks
B) 41 weeks
C) 42 weeks ✓
D) 43 weeks
Explanation: Pregnancy is considered post-term after completion of 42 weeks of gestation.
A) 200 ml
B) 300 ml
C) 400 ml ✓
D) 500 ml
Explanation: Approximately 400 ml of fetal blood flows through the placenta per minute.
A) Ductus venosus ✓
B) Ductus arteriosus
C) Foramen ovale
D) Inferior vena cava
Explanation: Oxygenated blood from umbilical vein enters fetal circulation primarily through ductus venosus.
A) Milk
B) Colostrum ✓
C) Lactose
D) Immunoglobulin
Explanation: Colostrum is the first secretion from mother's breast, rich in proteins and antibodies.
A) Folic acid ✓
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin C
Explanation: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can lead to neural tube defects in the fetus.
Q19. Small for gestational age newborns are at risk for difficulty maintaining body temperature because:
A) They have less fat storage ✓
B) They have reduced body surface area
C) They are more active
D) Their skin is more susceptible
Explanation: SGA babies have less subcutaneous fat which is essential for temperature regulation.
A) More than 7 days
B) More than 14 days ✓
C) More than 21 days
D) More than 28 days
Explanation: Persistent diarrhea is defined as diarrhea lasting 14 days or more.
A) 1994 ✓
B) 1996
C) 1998
D) 2000
Explanation: The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act was enacted in 1994.
A) Building sweet relationships ✓
B) Making friends
C) Resolving complaints
D) All of the above
Explanation: Community interaction primarily focuses on building positive relationships with community members.
A) Reduce incidence of burn injuries
B) Reduce mortality from burns
C) Reduce morbidity and disability
D) All of the above ✓
Explanation: NPPBI aims to reduce incidence, mortality, morbidity and disability due to burn injuries.
A) Giving directive advice
B) Establishing non-judgmental, empathetic supportive relationship ✓
C) Being authoritative
D) Making decisions for clients
Explanation: Health counseling should be based on empathy, support and non-judgmental approach.
A) April 1977
B) May 8, 1980 ✓
C) July 11, 1979
D) May 5, 1982
Explanation: WHO declared India smallpox-free on May 8, 1980.
A) Behavioral modification
B) Lifestyle modification
C) Immunization ✓
D) Nutritional education
Explanation: Immunization is a specific prevention method, while others are health promotion strategies.
A) Rabi
B) Kharif ✓
C) Zaid
D) Perennial
Explanation: Cotton is a Kharif crop grown during monsoon season.
A) Quality of nutritional intake
B) Quality of life ✓
C) Standard of living
D) All of the above
Explanation: Quality of life represents the subjective perception of well-being.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4 ✓
D) 5
Explanation: WHO recommends minimum 4 ANC visits during pregnancy.
A) Diarrhea
B) Pneumonia
C) Typhoid
D) Tuberculosis ✓
Explanation: Tuberculosis is an airborne disease, not prevented by handwashing. Others are waterborne/contact diseases.
A) Cellulitis
B) Tinea capitis ✓
C) Furuncles
D) Erysipelas
Explanation: Tinea capitis (scalp ringworm) is a fungal infection caused by poor hair hygiene.
A) Building attractive personality
B) Prevention of diseases
C) Providing conceptual stability
D) All of the above ✓
Explanation: Personal hygiene prevents diseases, builds personality and provides stability.
A) Hygiea ✓
B) Hygios
C) Hygeia
D) Hygens
Explanation: Hygiene comes from Greek word 'hygiea' which means goddess of health.
A) Community sanitation
B) Domestic sanitation
C) Personal sanitation
D) All of the above ✓
Explanation: Environmental sanitation encompasses community, domestic and personal sanitation.
A) Air pollution
B) Water pollution ✓
C) Soil pollution
D) Noise pollution
Explanation: Jaundice spreads through contaminated water containing hepatitis virus.
A) Air pollution
B) Water pollution ✓
C) Soil pollution
D) Food contamination
Explanation: E.coli is the most common indicator of fecal contamination in water.
A) Boiling
B) Filtering
C) Sterilizing
D) All of the above ✓
Explanation: All three methods - boiling, filtering and sterilizing are effective for water purification.
A) Polio
B) Tuberculosis ✓
C) Hepatitis
D) Measles
Explanation: BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine provides active immunity against tuberculosis.
A) BCG
B) OPV
C) Measles ✓
D) Pentavalent
Explanation: Measles vaccine is given subcutaneously, BCG is intradermal, OPV is oral, Pentavalent is intramuscular.
A) 6 weeks
B) 10 weeks
C) 9 months ✓
D) 15 months
Explanation: First dose of MR vaccine is given at 9 months (completed) or 9-12 months.
A) Tetanus Toxoid
B) MMR ✓
C) Influenza
D) Hepatitis B
Explanation: MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) is a live vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy.
A) Intramuscular
B) Subcutaneous
C) Intradermal
D) Oral ✓
Explanation: OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine) is given orally, usually 2 drops.
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane ✓
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen
Explanation: Anaerobic decomposition in landfills produces methane gas as the main component (45-60%).
A) 0.1 ml
B) 0.05 ml ✓
C) 0.2 ml
D) 0.5 ml
Explanation: For newborns below 4 weeks, BCG dose is 0.05 ml to prevent local complications.
A) 6 weeks
B) 9 months ✓
C) 16-24 months
D) 5 years
Explanation: First dose of JE vaccine is given at 9 months completed to 12 months.
A) 6 months
B) 9 months ✓
C) 12 months
D) 18 months
Explanation: First dose of Vitamin A is given at 9 months along with MR vaccine.
A) 6 & 10 weeks
B) 6 & 14 weeks ✓
C) 10 & 14 weeks
D) 6, 10 & 14 weeks
Explanation: PCV has 2 primary doses at 6 and 14 weeks, followed by booster at 9-12 months.
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Focus on Immunization Schedule: Pay special attention to vaccine schedules, routes of administration, and contraindications.
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Community Health Concepts: Understand concepts like PHC, RBSK, NRHM, and their implementation dates.
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Environmental Sanitation: Study water purification methods, waste management, and disease prevention.
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Midwifery Care: Focus on antenatal care, normal delivery signs, and fetal development.
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Child Health: Know about growth monitoring, nutrition, and common childhood diseases.
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Health Centre Management: Understand administrative aspects and community participation.
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Personal Hygiene: Study prevention of communicable diseases and health promotion.
- Nutrition: Malnutrition types, vitamin deficiencies, feeding practices
- Mental Health: Stress management, counseling techniques
- Health Education: Communication methods, community participation
- First Aid: Emergency care, CPR techniques
- Record Keeping: Documentation, reporting systems
- Family Planning: Contraceptive methods, maternal health
- Occupational Health: Work-related hazards, safety measures
Note: This compilation includes questions from JSSC ANM examinations conducted in 2021, 2022, and 2023. Practice these questions regularly and refer to official JSSC syllabus for comprehensive preparation.
Best of Luck for JANMCE 2025!