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JANMCE (Jharkhand SSC ANM) Complete Previous Year MCQ Question Bank

Exam Information

Exam Name: JANMCE (Jharkhand Auxiliary Nurse Midwife Competitive Examination)
Conducting Body: Jharkhand Staff Selection Commission (JSSC)
Total Questions: 50
Total Marks: 50
Time Duration: 60 minutes
Negative Marking: No
Exam Mode: Offline (OMR) / Online (CBT)

Syllabus Coverage

The exam covers the following subjects:

  • Community Health Nursing
  • Primary Health Care
  • Child Health Nursing
  • Midwifery
  • Health Centre Management
  • Human Body & Hygiene
  • Mental Health
  • Nutrition
  • Communicable Diseases
  • Environmental Sanitation
  • Infection & Immunization

1. COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

Q1. International conference on Primary Health Care Alma Ata was conducted in which year?

A) 1970
B) 1975
C) 1978 ✓
D) 1980

Explanation: The Alma Ata Declaration on Primary Health Care was made in 1978 in Kazakhstan.


Q2. Time interval between primary and secondary case in infectious disease is known as:

A) Extrinsic incubation period
B) Intrinsic incubation period
C) Serial interval ✓
D) Window Period

Explanation: Serial interval is the time between onset of symptoms in primary and secondary cases.


Q3. Under the national RBSK scheme, how many health conditions are screened?

A) 20
B) 30 ✓
C) 40
D) 50

Explanation: Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram screens for 30 health conditions including defects at birth, deficiencies, diseases and developmental delays.


Q4. UNICEF was established in which year?

A) 1946 ✓
B) 1948
C) 1950
D) 1952

Explanation: UNICEF was established on December 11, 1946.


Q5. Which one is appointed to provide health services in villages?

A) Doctor
B) Health worker ✓
C) Pharmacist
D) Administrator

Explanation: Health workers are appointed to provide health services at village level under PHC system.


Q6. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched on:

A) 2nd October 2013
B) 2nd October 2014 ✓
C) 15th August 2014
D) 26th January 2015

Explanation: Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched on 2nd October 2014 on Gandhi's 150th birthday.


Q7. Which disease is also called 'Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi'?

A) Typhoid ✓
B) Malaria
C) Diarrhea
D) Yellow fever

Explanation: Typhoid is caused by Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi bacteria.


Q8. Which is NOT a water-borne disease?

A) Typhoid
B) Cholera
C) Hepatitis A
D) Itching ✓

Explanation: Itching is not a water-borne disease; it's caused by allergies, toxins, or skin conditions.


2. PRIMARY HEALTH CARE

Q9. Primary Health Care was launched in India in which year?

A) 1950
B) 1952 ✓
C) 1975
D) 1978

Explanation: India started setting up PHCs in 1952.


Q10. National Rural Health Mission was launched in which year?

A) 2003
B) 2005 ✓
C) 2007
D) 2009

Explanation: National Rural Health Mission was launched by the Indian government in 2005.


Q11. A technique in which air is provided to those who cannot breathe normally but heart continues to beat is:

A) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation ✓
B) Bandaging
C) Dressing
D) Splinting

Explanation: CPR provides artificial ventilation and chest compressions to maintain circulation and breathing.


3. MIDWIFERY

Q12. Saffron colored meconium is seen in:

A) Post maturity ✓
B) Prematurity
C) Normal delivery
D) Multiple pregnancy

Explanation: Saffron colored meconium staining is characteristic of post-term pregnancies and fetal distress.


Q13. Meconium stained amniotic fluid during delivery indicates:

A) Normal labor
B) Fetal distress ✓
C) Maternal distress
D) Quick delivery

Explanation: Meconium in amniotic fluid indicates fetal hypoxia and distress.


Q14. Post-term pregnancy is considered after:

A) 40 weeks
B) 41 weeks
C) 42 weeks ✓
D) 43 weeks

Explanation: Pregnancy is considered post-term after completion of 42 weeks of gestation.


Q15. Amount of fetal blood flow through placenta per minute is:

A) 200 ml
B) 300 ml
C) 400 ml ✓
D) 500 ml

Explanation: Approximately 400 ml of fetal blood flows through the placenta per minute.


Q16. Oxygenated blood enters fetal circulation from umbilical vein via:

A) Ductus venosus ✓
B) Ductus arteriosus
C) Foramen ovale
D) Inferior vena cava

Explanation: Oxygenated blood from umbilical vein enters fetal circulation primarily through ductus venosus.


Q17. First secretion from mother's breast following delivery is called:

A) Milk
B) Colostrum ✓
C) Lactose
D) Immunoglobulin

Explanation: Colostrum is the first secretion from mother's breast, rich in proteins and antibodies.


Q18. Deficiency of which vitamin during pregnancy leads to neural tube defects?

A) Folic acid ✓
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin C

Explanation: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can lead to neural tube defects in the fetus.


4. CHILD HEALTH NURSING

Q19. Small for gestational age newborns are at risk for difficulty maintaining body temperature because:

A) They have less fat storage ✓
B) They have reduced body surface area
C) They are more active
D) Their skin is more susceptible

Explanation: SGA babies have less subcutaneous fat which is essential for temperature regulation.


Q20. Persistent diarrhea in children is defined as diarrhea lasting for:

A) More than 7 days
B) More than 14 days ✓
C) More than 21 days
D) More than 28 days

Explanation: Persistent diarrhea is defined as diarrhea lasting 14 days or more.


Q21. Pre-natal examination of fetal examination act came into force in:

A) 1994 ✓
B) 1996
C) 1998
D) 2000

Explanation: The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act was enacted in 1994.


5. HEALTH CENTRE MANAGEMENT

Q22. Community interaction means:

A) Building sweet relationships ✓
B) Making friends
C) Resolving complaints
D) All of the above

Explanation: Community interaction primarily focuses on building positive relationships with community members.


Q23. National Programme for Prevention of Burn Injuries was launched to:

A) Reduce incidence of burn injuries
B) Reduce mortality from burns
C) Reduce morbidity and disability
D) All of the above ✓

Explanation: NPPBI aims to reduce incidence, mortality, morbidity and disability due to burn injuries.


Q24. A fundamental principle of health counseling in community health nursing is:

A) Giving directive advice
B) Establishing non-judgmental, empathetic supportive relationship ✓
C) Being authoritative
D) Making decisions for clients

Explanation: Health counseling should be based on empathy, support and non-judgmental approach.


6. COMMUNICABLE DISEASES

Q25. India was declared smallpox free on:

A) April 1977
B) May 8, 1980 ✓
C) July 11, 1979
D) May 5, 1982

Explanation: WHO declared India smallpox-free on May 8, 1980.


Q26. Which of the following is not a method of health promotion?

A) Behavioral modification
B) Lifestyle modification
C) Immunization ✓
D) Nutritional education

Explanation: Immunization is a specific prevention method, while others are health promotion strategies.


7. NUTRITION

Q27. Cotton is which type of crop?

A) Rabi
B) Kharif ✓
C) Zaid
D) Perennial

Explanation: Cotton is a Kharif crop grown during monsoon season.


8. MENTAL HEALTH

Q28. The subjective component of well-being is known as:

A) Quality of nutritional intake
B) Quality of life ✓
C) Standard of living
D) All of the above

Explanation: Quality of life represents the subjective perception of well-being.


9. GENERAL SCIENCE & GK

Q29. Minimum ANC visits for antenatal care are:

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4 ✓
D) 5

Explanation: WHO recommends minimum 4 ANC visits during pregnancy.


10. HUMAN BODY & HYGIENE

Q30. Which of the following disease is NOT prevented by hand washing?

A) Diarrhea
B) Pneumonia
C) Typhoid
D) Tuberculosis ✓

Explanation: Tuberculosis is an airborne disease, not prevented by handwashing. Others are waterborne/contact diseases.


Q31. Poor hair hygiene could cause dandruff and skin infections such as:

A) Cellulitis
B) Tinea capitis ✓
C) Furuncles
D) Erysipelas

Explanation: Tinea capitis (scalp ringworm) is a fungal infection caused by poor hair hygiene.


Q32. Personal hygiene helps in:

A) Building attractive personality
B) Prevention of diseases
C) Providing conceptual stability
D) All of the above ✓

Explanation: Personal hygiene prevents diseases, builds personality and provides stability.


Q33. The word hygiene comes from Greek word:

A) Hygiea ✓
B) Hygios
C) Hygeia
D) Hygens

Explanation: Hygiene comes from Greek word 'hygiea' which means goddess of health.


11. ENVIRONMENTAL SANITATION

Q34. Environmental sanitation includes:

A) Community sanitation
B) Domestic sanitation
C) Personal sanitation
D) All of the above ✓

Explanation: Environmental sanitation encompasses community, domestic and personal sanitation.


Q35. The cause of jaundice is:

A) Air pollution
B) Water pollution ✓
C) Soil pollution
D) Noise pollution

Explanation: Jaundice spreads through contaminated water containing hepatitis virus.


Q36. E.coli is commonly used as indicator of:

A) Air pollution
B) Water pollution ✓
C) Soil pollution
D) Food contamination

Explanation: E.coli is the most common indicator of fecal contamination in water.


Q37. Methods to purify water include:

A) Boiling
B) Filtering
C) Sterilizing
D) All of the above ✓

Explanation: All three methods - boiling, filtering and sterilizing are effective for water purification.


12. INFECTION & IMMUNIZATION

Q38. BCG vaccine provides immunity against:

A) Polio
B) Tuberculosis ✓
C) Hepatitis
D) Measles

Explanation: BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine provides active immunity against tuberculosis.


Q39. Which vaccine is given subcutaneously?

A) BCG
B) OPV
C) Measles ✓
D) Pentavalent

Explanation: Measles vaccine is given subcutaneously, BCG is intradermal, OPV is oral, Pentavalent is intramuscular.


Q40. First dose of Measles & Rubella (MR) vaccine is given at:

A) 6 weeks
B) 10 weeks
C) 9 months ✓
D) 15 months

Explanation: First dose of MR vaccine is given at 9 months (completed) or 9-12 months.


Q41. Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?

A) Tetanus Toxoid
B) MMR ✓
C) Influenza
D) Hepatitis B

Explanation: MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) is a live vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy.


Q42. OPV vaccine is given by which route?

A) Intramuscular
B) Subcutaneous
C) Intradermal
D) Oral ✓

Explanation: OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine) is given orally, usually 2 drops.


13. ADDITIONAL IMPORTANT MCQs

Q43. Decomposition of waste in sanitary landfills generates which gas?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane ✓
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen

Explanation: Anaerobic decomposition in landfills produces methane gas as the main component (45-60%).


Q44. The normal dose of BCG vaccine for newborns is:

A) 0.1 ml
B) 0.05 ml ✓
C) 0.2 ml
D) 0.5 ml

Explanation: For newborns below 4 weeks, BCG dose is 0.05 ml to prevent local complications.


Q45. Japanese Encephalitis vaccine is given at:

A) 6 weeks
B) 9 months ✓
C) 16-24 months
D) 5 years

Explanation: First dose of JE vaccine is given at 9 months completed to 12 months.


Q46. Vitamin A first dose is given at:

A) 6 months
B) 9 months ✓
C) 12 months
D) 18 months

Explanation: First dose of Vitamin A is given at 9 months along with MR vaccine.


Q47. PCV (Pneumococcal Conjugated Vaccine) primary doses are given at:

A) 6 & 10 weeks
B) 6 & 14 weeks ✓
C) 10 & 14 weeks
D) 6, 10 & 14 weeks

Explanation: PCV has 2 primary doses at 6 and 14 weeks, followed by booster at 9-12 months.


IMPORTANT STUDY TIPS

  1. Focus on Immunization Schedule: Pay special attention to vaccine schedules, routes of administration, and contraindications.

  2. Community Health Concepts: Understand concepts like PHC, RBSK, NRHM, and their implementation dates.

  3. Environmental Sanitation: Study water purification methods, waste management, and disease prevention.

  4. Midwifery Care: Focus on antenatal care, normal delivery signs, and fetal development.

  5. Child Health: Know about growth monitoring, nutrition, and common childhood diseases.

  6. Health Centre Management: Understand administrative aspects and community participation.

  7. Personal Hygiene: Study prevention of communicable diseases and health promotion.

Additional Previous Year Topics to Review

  • Nutrition: Malnutrition types, vitamin deficiencies, feeding practices
  • Mental Health: Stress management, counseling techniques
  • Health Education: Communication methods, community participation
  • First Aid: Emergency care, CPR techniques
  • Record Keeping: Documentation, reporting systems
  • Family Planning: Contraceptive methods, maternal health
  • Occupational Health: Work-related hazards, safety measures

Note: This compilation includes questions from JSSC ANM examinations conducted in 2021, 2022, and 2023. Practice these questions regularly and refer to official JSSC syllabus for comprehensive preparation.

Best of Luck for JANMCE 2025!

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